VALID SY0-701 - VALID COMPTIA SECURITY+ CERTIFICATION EXAM TEST FORUM

Valid SY0-701 - Valid CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Test Forum

Valid SY0-701 - Valid CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Test Forum

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CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Sample Questions (Q238-Q243):

NEW QUESTION # 238
A company prevented direct access from the database administrators' workstations to the network segment that contains database servers. Which of the following should a database administrator use to access the database servers?

  • A. HSM
  • B. Load balancer
  • C. Jump server
  • D. RADIUS

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation
A jump server is a device or virtual machine that acts as an intermediary between a user's workstation and a remote network segment. A jump server can be used to securely access servers or devices that are not directly reachable from the user's workstation, such as database servers. A jump server can also provide audit logs and access control for the remote connections. A jump server is also known as a jump box or a jump host12.
RADIUS is a protocol for authentication, authorization, and accounting of network access. RADIUS is not a device or a method to access remote servers, but rather a way to verify the identity and permissions of users or devices that request network access34.
HSM is an acronym for Hardware Security Module, which is a physical device that provides secure storage and generation of cryptographic keys. HSMs are used to protect sensitive data and applications, such as digital signatures, encryption, and authentication. HSMs are not used to access remote servers, but rather to enhance the security of the data and applications that reside on them5 .
A load balancer is a device or software that distributes network traffic across multiple servers or devices, based on criteria such as availability, performance, or capacity. A load balancer can improve the scalability, reliability, and efficiency of network services, such as web servers, application servers, or database servers. A load balancer is not used to access remote servers, but rather to optimize the delivery of the services that run on them . References =
* How to access a remote server using a jump host
* Jump server
* RADIUS
* Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS)
* Hardware Security Module (HSM)
* [What is an HSM?]
* [Load balancing (computing)]
* [What is Load Balancing?]


NEW QUESTION # 239
A security analyst reviews domain activity logs and notices the following:

Which of the following is thebestexplanation for what the security analyst has discovered?

  • A. The user jsmith's account has been locked out.
  • B. An attacker is attempting to brute force ismith's account.
  • C. Ransomware has been deployed in the domain.
  • D. A keylogger is installed on [smith's workstation

Answer: B

Explanation:
Brute force is a type of attack that tries to guess the password or other credentials of a user account by using a large number of possible combinations. An attacker can use automated toolsor scripts to perform a brute force attack and gain unauthorized access to the account. The domain activity logs show that the user ismith has failed to log in 10 times in a row within a short period of time, which is a strong indicator of a brute force attack. The logs also show that the source IP address of the failed logins is different from the usual IP address of ismith, which suggests that the attacker is using a different device or location to launch the attack. The security analyst should take immediate action to block the attacker's IP address, reset ismith's password, and notify ismith of the incident. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 1, page 14. CompTIA Security+ (SY0-701) Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 1.1, page 2. Threat Actors and Attributes - SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 1.1


NEW QUESTION # 240
Which of the following should an organization use to protect its environment from external attacks conducted by an unauthorized hacker?

  • A. ACL
  • B. NIPS
  • C. IDS
  • D. HIDS

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 241
While troubleshooting a firewall configuration, a technician determines that a "deny any" policy should be added to the bottom of the ACL. The technician updates the policy, but the new policy causes several company servers to become unreachable.
Which of the following actions would prevent this issue?

  • A. Including an 'allow any1 policy above the 'deny any* policy
  • B. Documenting the new policy in a change request and submitting the request to change management
  • C. Disabling any intrusion prevention signatures on the 'deny any* policy prior to enabling the new policy
  • D. Testing the policy in a non-production environment before enabling the policy in the production network

Answer: D

Explanation:
A firewall policy is a set of rules that defines what traffic is allowed or denied on a network. A firewall policy should be carefully designed and tested before being implemented, as a misconfigured policy can cause network disruptions or security breaches. A common best practice is to test the policy in a non-production environment, such as a lab or a simulation, before enabling the policy in the production network. This way, the technician can verify the functionality and performance of the policy, and identify and resolve any issues or conflicts, without affecting the live network. Testing the policy in a non-production environment would prevent the issue of the 'deny any' policy causing several company servers to become unreachable, as the technician would be able to detect and correct the problem before applying the policy to the production network.
Documenting the new policy in a change request and submitting the request to change management is a good practice, but it would not prevent the issue by itself. Change management is a process that ensures that any changes to the network are authorized, documented, and communicated, but it does not guarantee that the changes are error-free or functional. The technician still needs to test the policy before implementing it.
Disabling any intrusion prevention signatures on the 'deny any' policy prior to enabling the new policy would not prevent the issue, and it could reduce the security of the network. Intrusion prevention signatures are patterns that identify malicious or unwanted traffic, and allow the firewall to block or alert on such traffic. Disabling these signatures would make the firewall less effective in detecting and preventing attacks, and it would not affect the reachability of the company servers.
Including an 'allow any' policy above the 'deny any' policy would not prevent the issue, and it would render the 'deny any' policy useless. A firewall policy is processed from top to bottom, and the first matching rule is applied. An 'allow any' policy would match any traffic and allow it to pass through the firewall, regardless of the source, destination, or protocol. This would negate the purpose of the 'deny any' policy, which is to block any traffic that does not match any of the previous rules. Moreover, an 'allow any' policy would create a security risk, as it would allow any unauthorized or malicious traffic to enter or exit the network. Reference = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 204-205; Professor Messer's CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, video 2.1 - Network Security Devices, 8:00 - 10:00.


NEW QUESTION # 242
A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) wants to explicitly raise awareness about the increase of ransomware-as-a-service in a report to the management team. Which of the following best describes the threat actor in the CISO's report?

  • A. Insider threat
  • B. Hacktivist
  • C. Organized crime
  • D. Nation-state

Answer: C

Explanation:
Ransomware-as-a-service is a type of cybercrime where hackers sell or rent ransomware tools or services to other criminals who use them to launch attacks and extort money from victims. This is a typical example of organized crime, which is a group of criminals who work together to conduct illegal activities for profit. Organized crime is different from other types of threat actors, such as insider threats, hacktivists, or nation-states, who may have different motives, methods, or targets. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 17 1


NEW QUESTION # 243
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For the SY0-701 web-based practice exam no special software installation is required. because it is a browser-based SY0-701 practice test. The web-based CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam practice exam works on all operating systems like Mac, Linux, iOS, Android, and Windows. In the same way, IE, Firefox, Opera and Safari, and all the major browsers support the web-based CompTIA SY0-701 Practice Test. So it requires no special plugins.

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